[ziggy2sound4u]

Perhaps someone can help me with this question.
It was stated to me about the KJV ;"The KJV translators believed it was OK to translate the divine name JEHOVAH here, but not the other THOUSANDS places where it should be." and "That is my point. KJV IS NOT consistent and "hardly" inspired from God."
How would any of you brothers (or sisters) respond to this?

In passages where it states something to the effect of, "this is my name," they translated the word as "Jehovah." In the rest of the passages they translated it as LORD or Lord GOD (depending on the underlying Hebrew).

Does God have a problem with that? Did they play around with the Hebrew text to make it say "LORD" instead of "Jehovah"? No.

Consider all the places in the NT where the OT was quoted - how many times in the NT do we see the word "Lord" quoted from the OT "LORD"? Many places. The Greek kurios has the meaning of Lord. If God meant to have it always translated as "Jehovah", then we would find Jehovah quoted in the NT, whether in the Greek or the English - AND WE FIND IT IN NEITHER! You've been listening to too many cultists that want to change the Word of God.

Some examples:

Psalms 110:1 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Acts 2:34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,

Deuteronomy 6:16 Ye shall not tempt the LORD your God, as ye tempted him in Massah.

Matthew 4:7 Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.

Isaiah 40:3 The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the LORD, make straight in the desert a highway for our God.

Matthew 3:3 For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.

Isaiah 1:9 Except the LORD of hosts had left unto us a very small remnant, we should have been as Sodom, and we should have been like unto Gomorrah.

Romans 9:29 And as Esaias said before, Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha.

Joel 2:32 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

Romans 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

I am sure that is enough examples, there are plenty more. Obviously, if the Lord Himself inspired the NT to say "Lord" where the OT translates that word as "LORD", then it is not a problem, except for the Bible critic or a cultist unwilling to accept any Bible they can hold in their hands (except for one they have edited).

[ziggy2sound4u]

Jerry, this "fellow" (I will call him such, as I have no real means of seeing his heart, thus I do not know if he is born again or not), says that in Ex. 3:15, the KJV uses "Lord" instead of Jehovah. I myself do not think this is a big deal, however he does. I take it on faith that the KJV is the Word of God.

I am sure the KJV translators knew what they were doing. Look at the context - the name is already used in verse 14. I Am That I Am/I Am is the exact same words as Jehovah - in fact, it is the meaning of Jehovah/LORD.

Exodus 3:13-15 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Sure, if they rip verse 15 out of the context it seems like an oversight - however, taken in context, it is obvious that God's name was already mentioned, so there was no need to repeat that in the very next sentence.

Then in chapter 6 we see this:

Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

[ziggy2sound4u]

Jerry, This fellow seems most insistant that for "us" to believe that it is alright that the Word "Lord" is used in place of "Jehovah", would make "us" non-Bible believers!
I "showed" him where Jesus (God, Himself) deleted the Word "Jehovah" in Matt. 22:32, which is a DIRECT quote of Ex. 3:15.
I have no ideal if this will help.
God Bless, and I hope this will be the end of this discussion. I find NO evidence that the KJV is NOT the Word of God, and in fact can find all kinds of evidence that it is!
By the way, this conversation is ongoing on youtube; "Why I Believe the KJV Is The Word of God.

I think Jesus would know what the Word of God is - and some of those quotes in the NT were spoken by Jesus. He said Lord, not Jehovah. If He believes that is exactly what the Word is supposed to say on those passages, who are we to argue with Him?

[ziggy2sound4u]

Amen, Brother Jerry!
I agree, Jesus would know!

http://www.chick.com/ask/articles/jehovah.asp

^ i think david daniels offers a grrrrrrrrrrr8 explanation of this in his book "answers to your bible version questions"

[ziggy2sound4u]

Thanks sting of truth, I posted this on you tube.
I told this "fellow" after reading the Chick info. I thought the KJV translaters were consistant. I was not aware that they had rules in place to designate personal Names of God!
I hope this gets through to him, as I pointed out to him, ALL the new versions contain lies!
What Bible are we supposed to use then?
God bless to you all!

that last question you asked is the key "What Bible are we supposed to use then?" thats the great question to ask anyone, more specifically, what bible is the word of God? the best thing to do is push on the issue, then when and if they pull back to the whole "original language" wall, knock it over by asking specifically which exact manuscripts? obviously the masoretic text for the o.t., but what about the new testament? what greek manuscripts do we use for the n.t.? or do we even use the greek? maybe we should be using the vaudois, wich is the properly translated bible used by the Waldensians, then ask where you can obtain copies of each text, basically just wear them down till they admit that they don't know exactly what the word of God is, then you can say you do.. the king james bible