If a version of the Bible translated Exodus 20:7 as Thou shalt not (bleep)ing take the name of the LORD thy (bleep)ing God in vain; for the LORD will not hold him (bleep)ing guiltless that taketh his name in vain., would the profanity disqualify the translation as accurate because God does not have a vulgar attribute?

Does God have an attribute of untimeliness? If so, when? When God told Adam not to eat from the fruit of a certain tree, could the words properly be shown to be words from centuries ago which weren't yet? Did God give Moses some commandments in the language of the time of Moses and some commandments in the language of the time of Adam? When Jesus came in the flesh, do you think that he spoke with timely words that were common to his day or with language that was untimely?

Before the NASB came out with a revised edition, there were plenty of untimely thees and thous in the Old Testament. When I pointed out to the publisher that these occurrances kept the NASB from being new, they replied that they were coming out with a revised version, but would sell the old as long as there is a demand. Similar circumstances occur with the King James version.

Recognizing God's attributes in translation, when and why isn't it important? Does God always have an attribute of timeliness? When was/is it otherwise?

What are you talking about - and why are you filling our heads with a verse that includes veiled swear words?

[Denny]

Jerry, I agree with you. I have no idea what he is trying to say.
But I would like to add here that the taking of God's name in vain is much more than using it in profanity. A good example would be if we claim to be a Christian, and don't live the way God Instructs us in His Word, we really do take His Name in vain.

Denny

But certainly using His name in profanity - or using it in a manner that is not with specific purpose - is in vain. For example, saying "God bless you" or "bless you" superstitiously everytime someone sneezes is using it in vain - because you are not consciously asking God's blessing on that person, nor are you seeking it just because they sneezed. Or when someone just says "Oh my God" or "oh my" (shortened form) and they are not referring to God or calling out to Him in prayer - that is in vain too - ie. saying it without meaning, in an empty manner.

[Paladin54]

Jerry, you bring up excellent points, but I'd like your opinion on something some friends of my friends do.
Since Christianity has been "exiled" here in the west, when someone sneezes, instead of the politically correct "bless you", they will say "God bless you" on purpose, to sort of "put God back in there. Weak, I know.

Another thing, what if some people sincerely say "Oh, my God" actually asking for God's help. I have a lot of physical pain-a great trial and spiritual gift from God-and when it gets really bad, I'll, in private whisper, "Oh, my God, save me!" I do this in private because I understand that I really am calling upon the name of our Lord, but I would never do it in public because people will think that I am using the secular cliche "Oh, my God". So I suppose my question is: What if "God" is used sincerely?

Then it is not in vain. In vain means without meaning. If you are actually calling out to Him that is not in vain. If you really are actively seeking God's blessing on someone, that is not in vain - but why bless them for sneezing? Why not seek God's blessing for everyone regardless? People used to bless others for sneezing because of superstition - oh, you sneezed and your heart stopped for a second - I better say "God bless you" so you don't die. We know that is not true - so why do it?

Originally Posted by gruvEdude

If a version of the Bible translated Exodus 20:7 as Thou shalt not (bleep)ing take the name of the LORD thy (bleep)ing God in vain; for the LORD will not hold him (bleep)ing guiltless that taketh his name in vain., would the profanity disqualify the translation as accurate because God does not have a vulgar attribute?

Does God have an attribute of untimeliness? If so, when? When God told Adam not to eat from the fruit of a certain tree, could the words properly be shown to be words from centuries ago which weren't yet? Did God give Moses some commandments in the language of the time of Moses and some commandments in the language of the time of Adam? When Jesus came in the flesh, do you think that he spoke with timely words that were common to his day or with language that was untimely?

Before the NASB came out with a revised edition, there were plenty of untimely thees and thous in the Old Testament. When I pointed out to the publisher that these occurrances kept the NASB from being new, they replied that they were coming out with a revised version, but would sell the old as long as there is a demand. Similar circumstances occur with the King James version.

Recognizing God's attributes in translation, when and why isn't it important? Does God always have an attribute of timeliness? When was/is it otherwise?

You are like a naughty little boy who thinks he has found a way to legitimately get away with doing something that he knows is wrong...adding profanity to Gods Word??...grow up.

As for questioning Gods "timeliness", as you put it,

Ecc 3:1 To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under the heaven:


I am sure the publishers of the new Bible versions really value your input.


Fundy