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#31
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My understanding is that some people read "husband of one wife" as excluding men who have re-married after divorce from being a bishop. But I don't quite understand that, since John 4:17,18 seems to indicate that past marriages are not present marriages, so why is an ex-wife considered a "present" wife?
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#32
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I bring up this verse again, Quote:
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#33
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Justifiable divorce
Mat 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. If a man divorces his wife ( or visa versa) due to infidelity on the others part, the non offending party could re-marry without committing the sin of adultery. Jesus says "whosoever"...this would include men who would become or are presently Pastors, deacons etc. I cannot find a reference anywhere in the Bible that disallows men divorced in this circumstance to serve in an office of the church. Fundy |
#34
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