[atlas]

People,

wwjd was banned

There is the best news I have heard all day.




Atlas

[George]

Originally Posted by atlas

People,

wwjd was banned

There is the best news I have heard all day.



Atlas

Aloha Atlas,

And amen to that brother!

[pbiwolski]

I just flew through this thread and noticed that wwjd was not the only one posting doctrinal errors.

Some of you are making the mistake of teaching that "profitable for doctrine" means "applicable for doctrine to the NT believer."

[Here Am I]

Could you point out the particulars?

I'm always open to teaching, if it's Scriptural.

[Forrest]

Originally Posted by pbiwolski

Some of you are making the mistake of teaching that "profitable for doctrine" means "applicable for doctrine to the NT believer."

I am confused by your statement (you are making the mistake of teaching that "profitable for doctrine" means "applicable for doctrine to the NT believer"). Could you please clarify and expound?

[LindaR]

Originally Posted by Forrest

I am confused by your statement (you are making the mistake of teaching that "profitable for doctrine" means "applicable for doctrine to the NT believer"). Could you please clarify and expound?

From Strong's Greek Dictionary:

Strong's Greek Dictionary
5624. ophelimos
Search for G5624 in KJVSL
ophelimos o-fel'-ee-mos
from a form of 3786; helpful or serviceable, i.e. advantageous:--profit(-able).

See Greek 3786

[Forrest]

Originally Posted by LindaR

From Strong's Greek Dictionary:

Strong's Greek Dictionary
5624. ophelimos
Search for G5624 in KJVSL
ophelimos o-fel'-ee-mos
from a form of 3786; helpful or serviceable, i.e. advantageous:--profit(-able).

See Greek 3786

Sister Linda, this was originally posted by pbiwolski:

Some of you are making the mistake of teaching that "profitable for doctrine" means "applicable for doctrine to the NT believer."

If "profitable" means helpful or serviceable, i.e. advantageous:--profit(-able).

And "applicable" means capable of or suitable for being applied : appropriate.

Where is the mistake he is referring to some making?

[LindaR]

Originally Posted by Forrest

Sister Linda, this was originally posted by pbiwolski:



If "profitable" means helpful or serviceable, i.e. advantageous:--profit(-able).

And "applicable" means capable of or suitable for being applied : appropriate.

Where is the mistake he is referring to some making?

Don't we need to go by the definitions of those two words and discern how the word "profitable" is used in 2 Timothy 3:16?

Is the word "applicable" synonymous with "profitable" as used in this verse?

I looked up both of those words in the Websters 1828 Dictionary:

Webster's 1828 Dictionary [K-Z]
profitable
PROF'ITABLE, a. Yielding or bringing profit or gain; gainful; lucrative; as a profitable trade; profitable business; a profitable study or profession.

1. Useful; advantageous.

What was so profitable to the empire, became fatal to the emperor.
***********************
Webster's 1828 Dictionary [A-J]
applicable
AP'PLICABLE, a. That may be applied; fit to be applied, as related to a thing; that may have relation to something else; as, this observation is applicable to the case under consideration.

IMO, being "profitable" doesn't necessarily mean "applicable". To tell you the truth, I'm !

[Forrest]

Originally Posted by LindaR

Don't we need to go by the definitions of those two words and discern how the word "profitable" is used in 2 Timothy 3:16?

Is the word "applicable" synonymous with "profitable" as used in this verse?

I looked up both of those words in the Websters 1828 Dictionary:

Webster's 1828 Dictionary [K-Z]
profitable
PROF'ITABLE, a. Yielding or bringing profit or gain; gainful; lucrative; as a profitable trade; profitable business; a profitable study or profession.

1. Useful; advantageous.

What was so profitable to the empire, became fatal to the emperor.
***********************
Webster's 1828 Dictionary [A-J]
applicable
AP'PLICABLE, a. That may be applied; fit to be applied, as related to a thing; that may have relation to something else; as, this observation is applicable to the case under consideration.

IMO, being "profitable" doesn't necessarily mean "applicable". To tell you the truth, I'm !

You may be misunderstanding me. I agree with you. All I am saying is that doctrine (that which is taught) is both "profitable" and "applicable" to the believer. I'm having a difficult time understanding how someone "could be mistaken" if they teach that the Word of God, in the OT or NT is both profitable for doctrine (that which is taught) and applicable to the NT believer.

"Wherewithal shall a young man cleanse his way? by taking heed thereto according to thy word" (Psalm 119:11).

"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you" (John 15:3).

[LindaR]

Originally Posted by Forrest

You may be misunderstanding me. I agree with you. All I am saying is that doctrine (that which is taught) is both "profitable" and "applicable" to the believer. I'm having a difficult time understanding how someone "could be mistaken" if they teach that the Word of God, in the OT or NT is both profitable for doctrine (that which is taught) and applicable to the NT believer.

"Wherewithal shall a young man cleanse his way? by taking heed thereto according to thy word" (Psalm 119:11).

"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you" (John 15:3).

I think I see your point...that which is taught (doctrine) is both "profitable" and "applicable" to the NT believer.....both Old Testament and New Testament.