Bible Versions Questions and discussion about the Bible version issue.

 
 
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  #51  
Old 03-01-2008, 10:23 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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Anyway how can the king james "TRANSLATION" be perfect when it has been revised several times and eventually retained 90% of the Tyndale version.
And this "god" supplied him with "facts" like these.
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  #52  
Old 03-02-2008, 05:45 AM
ploughboy
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Default 100% Accurate

Foley
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My version is approx 95% accurate
Mine is 100% accurate. I will keep my KJV1611
Foley, you should post over at the Baptist Board; they would love you over there.



Ploughboy
  #53  
Old 03-02-2008, 11:37 AM
timothy
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Well, Foley, I leave you to it then. Another Bible Translation Version here we come... but I won't buy it, especially if my wife would not be able to undersatand it, just like NASB, NIV, NKJV, and others before it before we settled on KJV and she understand that just fine.

My last say in this thread here...
  #54  
Old 03-02-2008, 12:31 PM
jerry
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Funny how so many in Christendom thinks the Bible is in error and needs to be retranslated, yada yada - YET they keep coming out with several new ones a year! You figure someone would have gotten it right somewhere along the way...
  #55  
Old 03-02-2008, 08:33 PM
LIVNBYFAITH
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Hey, if we don't respond he will leave.
  #56  
Old 03-02-2008, 08:57 PM
foley
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I used to read the king james bible until i realized(despite large chunks of substance and accuracy) that it was a joke and in bad need of updating.
The mistranslation of "easter" instead of passover is a classic example of how the king james is not perfect and therefore cannot possibly be the ennerant perfect preserved word of god in english.
all i have to do is prove that the word easter is wrong and that will silence you all.

The word easter(acts 12:4) in the king james version is a blatantly erroneous mistranslation that has been "correctly" corrected in virtually every other modern bible translation. The original greek word is "pascha" which is translated everwhere else in the king james bible as passover (so why the inconsistency in acts12:4?) which is what it means. It refers to the biblical passover originally instituted when god freed the israelites from slavery in egypt.
The original apostles, from the inception of the new testament church to near the end of the first century, when the apostle john died, left absolutely no record of observing easter or teaching others to do so.
The term "easter" is not of christian origin. It is another form of "Astarte, one of the titles of the chaldean(Babylonian) goddess, the queen of heaven. The festival of pasch(passover) held by christians in post apostolic times was a continuation of the jewish feast. From this "pasch" the pagan festival was introduced into the apostate western religion as part of an attempt to adapt pagan festivals to christianity.
What means the term easter itself? it bears its chaldean origin on its very forehead. Easter is nothing else than "Astarte", one of the titles of Beltis, the queen of heaven, whose name, as pronounced by the people of Nineveh, was... "Ishtar."
As years went on among those who called themselves christian, the title easter was used to wrongly desribe the passover.
In reality, most of the trappings associated withy easter reveal that the holiday is actually a fraud pawned off on unsuspecting well intentioned christians. God wants us to worship in spirit and in truth, not to recycle ancient customs used to worship pagan gods.Rather difficult as it may be to admit, easter merely continues the practices pagans followed thousands of years ago to honor their non existent gods. Easter is a tradition that dishonors god and if you say the king james translation is correct you are contradicting the actual greek word and advocating ancient pagan practices falsely associated with genuine christianity.
I think i have said enough to prove the the word easter in the king james bible is out of place and a blatant "mistranslation" and therefrore i have proved that the king james bible then, cannot possibly be the ennerant preserved word of god in english. end of story.

I assure you all, that yoiu will buy my version and replace your ancient king james with it.
  #57  
Old 03-02-2008, 09:06 PM
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Diligent Diligent is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by foley View Post
all i have to do is prove that the word easter is wrong and that will silence you all.
And if you are proven wrong will you take a vow of silence for us?

What makes anyone think that the translators of the KJV, many of whom were fluent in Biblical languages before they could grow facial hair, just "missed" this issue of Easter?

http://av1611.com/kjbp/faq/holland_ac12_4.html
http://av1611.com/kjbp/articles/moorman-easter.html
  #58  
Old 03-02-2008, 09:11 PM
jblm1611
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Proverbs 26:3 A whip for the horse, a bridle for the ass, and the rod for the fool's back.

Foley read Acts 12:3-4 In the KJV not your silly translation. Herod took Peter during the days of unleavened bread -PASSOVER. So if you think Easter should be passover then Herod would have to what to kill Peter a year later because Herod was going to kill Peter after Herod's holiday EASTER.
  #59  
Old 03-02-2008, 09:24 PM
jerry
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Yes, and it nowhere states Christians were observing Easter, but that Herod was going to kill Peter after Easter.

Nothing like being proud, Folly! Why would we buy or even use your translation? You are so full of pride and care nothing about the Book we hold sacred. You come here just to knock it. With that mentality, I can guarantee that none here are going to want to even look at your corrupted work.
  #60  
Old 03-03-2008, 12:57 AM
foley
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Thanks Diligent! for that very informative link. You have been a tool of God to make sure that my versions accuracy remains as high as possible. I have now corrected my version to read
:Herod intending to bring him before the people after the pagan Easter festival. Remember, i have no qualms with paraphrasing where it is entirely appropriate and neccesary to clarify the context of the verse.
What you showed me is as about as conclusive as i could hope for to re do the verse, so thanks again and God bless you.
My version is aimed at ease of reading and correct context at all times, so i deem what you showed me very helpful.

Now with regards to the word "slack" where it says God is not slack concerning his promise as some men count "slackness." The greek word for slack literally means slow. Both these words are more than acceptable to me because the accurate context is there, but i think the word slow is just that little bit more exacting, therefore my version reads: "God is not slow concerning his promise the way some people deem slowness."

Regarding the verse in 2 Corinthians 10:5...the literal word for casting down is "overthrowing" the literal word for imaginations is "reasonings" and the literal words for exalts itself is "rises up" therefore my version reads: "Overthrowing false assertions and every pretentious thing that rises up against the knowledge of God"

These are examples just to let you know about how i am approaching my work.

Nonetheless i still hold to my position that the king james was subject to human imperfection and they were not the inspired original writers, therefore it cannot possibly be the innerant word of God in english, but rather a **** good translation that is now in need of updating for a modern audience.

Last edited by foley; 03-03-2008 at 01:01 AM.
 

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