Originally Posted by Diligent

Heh -- I can. You might start with Jehudi!

You mean Jeremiah 36? Don't be silly, that's exactly what I'm talking about.

[Paladin54]

Tell them how you really feel, Brandon.

[Gord]

Originally Posted by Diligent

Now explain to me what Jesus, the Lord, God in the flesh, the incarnate Word, was doing appealing to physical written words if those words are not indestructible and perfectly preserved and not themselves truth?

And of course he did not quote any of those perfectly preserved words from a KJV.

[bibleprotector]

And of course he did not quote any of those perfectly preserved words from a KJV.

That is like saying that you better not read the English Bible, because Jesus did not speak in English to the Jews.

[Gord]

Originally Posted by bibleprotector

That is like saying that you better not read the English Bible, because Jesus did not speak in English to the Jews.

Maybe that is the problem, ENGLISH, because I clearly did not say "you better not read the English Bible", what I did say (just to remind you again in English)

And of course he did not quote any of those perfectly preserved words from a KJV

to in plain English bolster the argument that the early fundamentalists did not have the KJV,
Jesus did not have the KJV,
nor did the appostles quote from the KJV
for example when Matthew quotes Isaiah 40.3

"For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.
Matt 3:3 (KJV)"

Maybe ENGLISH is the problem, not what version it is quoted from.

[Steven Avery]

Originally Posted by Gord9

Jesus did not have the KJV, nor did the appostles quote from the KJV for example when Matthew quotes Isaiah 40.3

Quote:
"For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.
Matt 3:3 (KJV)"

Hi Gord9,

Just to be clear, there are no quotation marks in the King James Bible itself. I realize you put the quotation marks around your quoting the King James Bible however a reader might mistakenly think that Matthew put quotation words around the words of Isaiah. Quotation marks indicate representing the exact, or almost exact, words. Many NT references to the NT give the writer's and speaker's exegesis (or midrash, if you will) along with the Tanach (OT) reference. And these textual nuances and insights are inspired by the Holy Spirit.

Isaiah 40:3
The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness,
Prepare ye the way of the LORD,
make straight in the desert a highway for our God.

Later some Greek OT texts were incorrectly 'smoothed' to match the inspired writers. The classic case of this is Psalm 14. Tampered to match Romans 3 as a single quotation/reference.

Knowing the evidences (including the DSS, the Peshitta and Vulgate and Targumim and the Greek textual history and more) we can conclude this type of tampering occurred in the Greek text line on Isaiah 40:3 as well.

Shalom,
Steven

[Gord]

Originally Posted by Steven Avery

Just to be clear, there are no quotation marks in the King James Bible itself. I realize you put the quotation marks around your quoting the King James Bible however a reader might mistakenly think that Matthew put quotation words around the words of Isaiah. Quotation marks indicate representing the exact, or almost exact, words.

Shalom,
Steven

Thanks, I originally put the quotation marks in manually then before posting I decided to use the html tags and forgot to remove them.

Originally Posted by Steven Avery

Later some Greek OT texts were incorrectly 'smoothed' to match the inspired writers. The classic case of this is Psalm 14. Tampered to match Romans 3 as a single quotation/reference.

Knowing the evidences (including the DSS, the Peshitta and Vulgate and Targumim and the Greek textual history and more) we can conclude this type of tampering occurred in the Greek text line on Isaiah 40:3 as well.

More of us (myself included) would be wise to spend more of our time in this study so that we all could spot and understand these textual nuances and insights are inspired by the Holy Spirit.

[Diligent]

Originally Posted by Gord

And of course he did not quote any of those perfectly preserved words from a KJV.

Now you're changing the point -- though your point is one easily addressed, it isn't what I was talking about. MDOC's claims were without regard to language -- that Christ is the Truth, not the written word. So I was pointing out how Christ dealt with the written word in his earthly ministry.

Originally Posted by Diligent

Now you're changing the point -- though your point is one easily addressed, it isn't what I was talking about. MDOC's claims were without regard to language -- that Christ is the Truth, not the written word. So I was pointing out how Christ dealt with the written word in his earthly ministry.

He knows that.

Joh 14:6
(6) Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

Deu 8:3 And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live.

And this is found in your perfect KJV in ink.

[Diligent]

Originally Posted by MDOC

He knows that.

Joh 14:6
(6) Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

Deu 8:3 And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live.

And this is found in your perfect KJV in ink.

Of course Jesus Christ is the truth -- but so is the written word, as the Bible amply demonstrates.