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Hey guys,
I'm new here and I've been browsing this site and the rest of the internet for some time, but I have had trouble coming up with the answers I was looking for. I'm sure there out there somewhere but I figured it'd be easiest just to ask directly since I find most people rather enjoy discussing what they believe anyway. I'm going to come clean: I'm not a KJVO, but give me a chance. I'm sure you're used to people coming in and trollinng, ranting, and belittling and I'm not here to do that. I just honestly have trouble completely understanding the view and I'm sure this is the place to fix that. I have many, many questions, but I guess the best one to start with is: why the 1611 KJV? (Why not an earlier English translation? Is there such thing as an inspired non-English version or is the KJV the only inspired English version? Was there an inspired version before man had the KJV?) I suppose ended up being more than one question, but the parenthetical ones probably help explain where I'm coming from. Thanks, -Brandon |
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