I don't know who wrote the "article" about the NKJV, BUT, that person really didn't study. Obviously the people here know that you must take the Greek and Hebrew into consideration, easiest way, Strong's Exhaustive Concordance. If you look up the verses that that person claimed were changed, you will see why the NKJV uses the "changed" words. All words from the Strong's that are in the definition for the AV. So, the NKJV still keeps the same meaning as the AV.