[
FONT="Georgia"][/FONT] The NIV translations were recommended to me by men of Christ, whose opinions I greatly respect. The translations were called into question by others, claiming that phrases and verses were left out. I have researched this question from the NIV point of view, (to be truthful, a limited amount of research)and the general consensus seems to be two fold. ONE: the KJV translated from the Latin Vulgate, which for it's time was the most accurate representation of scripture translation. Since then however, a great number of original documents have been discovered which throw light on the languages used, and the culture which used them. This has allowed a more accurate translation than that offered by the KJV. TWO: There have been discussions back and forth attempting to discredit the NIV, stating that words, phrases, and indeed whole verses have been left out. The explanation given is that in the original languages these texts were written in, did not contain the material in question. I am seriously trying to get a feel for which side of the question I will support, so if there is someone with the qualifications to speak on this subject, please respond.