What is King James Bible Only?

05-16-2008, 02:06 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by bibleprotector

But that is not saying that the translation is full or complete in English, that is, that the whole and all the meaning of the original words are exactly and fully presenting the full sense in the English.

"But thou hast fully known my doctrine" (2 Tim 3:10a). "Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me; that by me the preaching might be fully known, and that all the Gentiles might hear" (2 Tim. 4:17a). This requires that the full translation occur so that we (all Gentiles) may fully know the doctrine in English. Are the Gentiles going to hear only the full truth today if they go to the Greek? Or if it is yet being unlocked and revealed from the Greek? Is it not rather that God has providentially supplied and sanctioned the English Bible to take out from the scattered Greek and Hebrew one good Bible for all?

Quote:

Originally Posted by Diligent

Is the King James Bible perfect and complete and without error? Do you believe there is something we can "gain" from the Greek and Hebrew that isn't evident in the KJB? I'm curious, because you and quite a few people seem to stop short of attributing the full and complete manifestation of Scripture to the King James Bible. Just wondering.

Like I said, it really does not matter, the more important thing is defining and defending the parameters of King James Only. Although, I thought I was manifestly clear in what I said. Be that as it may, I am in a good mood tonight and will acquiesce to your request.

In the words of Peter S. Ruckman (The Christian’s Handbook Of Biblical Scholarship p.460):

Quote:

Use “the Greek” where it will magnify, apply, glorify, and explain the infallible English, and where it doesn’t, pass it like a beer can on the highway.

Interpretation: if “the Greek” contradicts the King James Authorized Bible, you have the wrong Greek.

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