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Old 03-21-2008, 11:47 AM
grace to me
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Diligent ,

So you're going to tell me that "all men" in verse 2:11 actually excludes the men spoken of in verses 1:10-16? That, despite the clear flow of the context, the "the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men" really means "all men except the ones mentioned earlier?"

chapter 1 starts out with Paul spaeking to Titus a believer telling him how to run the Church till towards the end of verse 9 .
Vs. 9 ends with convincing the gainsayers then vs. 10 starts with for connecting the two verses , verse 10 - 16 explain how to do that , they were false teachers , notice the change in what he was talking about in verses 1-9 and how at the end of verse 9 the subject changes to gainsaying and then he goes and explains what they were doing , verse 16 says they were abominable , reprobate , disobedient . chapter 2 verse 1 starts oout with the word but , contrasting what he had just expounded about the false teachers , chapter 2 verse 1-10 Paul reverts back to his original message of verse 1-9 of chapter 1 , chapter 2 verse 11 starts out with the word for , connecting verse 10 with verse 11 , the all spoken of here is the elect.
 


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