[Diligent]

Originally Posted by grace to me

Acts 2:39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.

the all in this verse doesn't mean all without exception it explains it later in the verse , as many as the Lord shall call , Gods word uses the word all in other places to not mean all inclusive ,

Agreed -- "all" is a word defined in its context. So for Titus 2:11, we should see what is being said around the verse. Have you read chapter 1?

Titus 1:10-16 For there are many unruly and vain talkers and deceivers... who subvert whole houses... They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate....

So you're going to tell me that "all men" in verse 2:11 actually excludes the men spoken of in verses 1:10-16? That, despite the clear flow of the context, the "the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men" really means "all men except the ones mentioned earlier?"

I just don't buy it. Calvinism wants to redefine too many words in the Bible to suit the system of Calvinism.



I asked before how you handle this verse:

Revelation 22:17 And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely.

I know what I did with this verse when I was still a Calvinist: I ignored it. Eventually I had to come to terms with the fact that Calvinism makes Christ out to be a disingenuous speaker when he offers the water of life freely to whosoever will. Calvinism teaches that Christ, on the one hand, created men wholly unable to respond to the gospel, and on the other hand, insists that men respond to it anyway. I finally had to address the fact that I was in essence calling Christ a liar, for if there is no whosoever will, then Christ was speaking word entirely void. I repented.