[Kirandio]

You said "in any depth", so there was miscommunication, because I considered "any" to mean that as long as I had looked into both sides even as little as 30 seconds (I spent more than that btw), that would qualify. Am I correct in what you meant to say was "in any significant depth"? The FINAL AUTHORITY idea is interesting, I will look into it some more.

My definition of the Bible is the collection and compilation of God's Scriptures. These Scriptures are originally written in Greek and Hebrew. For me to be able to understand the Scriptures, they must be translated into my language so I can read them, or I can learn Greek and Hebrew to read the Scriptures. A person reading the Scriptures must be able to understand the meaning of the Scriptures for them to be of any use to the person. The actual words of the Scriptures are in Greek and Hebrew. These words were copied in manuscripts.

Is Scripture the actual words, or is Scripture the actual meaning? I believe that you will say that the Scripture is the actual words. If Scripture is the actual words, and if the actual words are in Hebrew and Greek, then no translation should be made, since adding and subtracting words is forbidden, because:

Deuteronomy 4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.

Proverbs 30:5 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.
6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.

Revelation 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

We are safer if we just read the words directly from the originals. After all, the King James translators used italics to show where they added words to their translation. As described above, adding words is forbidden to the text.

I believe that Scripture is the meaning. I am going to put this in a future post.

For a person to be able to receive the meaning of Scripture, the person must have the Scriptures translated, or if the person understands Greek and Hebrew then they can actually read the words directly. I will gather my thoughts up more on this part.

I do not believe God considers one specific English translation of the Bible to be the only English translation to be used. I believe that God would expect that men would want to continuously look into the Greek and Hebrew texts for more information regarding his Words. However, believing in such a manner does not make it the correct belief.

So if I understand this, you believe that the FINAL AUTHORITY for the English speaking world is the King James Bible that was printed out in 1611. You have this FINAL AUTHORITY available to use on your website.

I believe that the FINAL AUTHORITY is the very being of God. I am now starting here:

http://av1611.com/kjbp/kjv-bible-text/Joh-1.html

John 1:1: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

The Word existed in the beginning, and the Word was equivalent to God.

My question: Is the Word still God today?

You consider the FINAL AUTHORITY to be the Word of God preserved in the King James Bible. I consider the FINAL AUTHORITY to be the living being of God. What about this possibility? The FINAL AUTHORITY is the Word of God. Since the Word of God is equal to God, then the FINAL AUTHORITY is equal to God, and therefore is God. Therefore, the FINAL AUTHORITY is God, since "the word was with God, and the Word was God."

Is the FINAL AUTHORITY still the Word? Is the Word still God?

But the word "was" in there means that it is in past tense. Is the Word of God still God? Do you believe that the AV 1611 King James Bible is equivalent to the Word that is presented in John 1:1? Do you believe that the AV 1611 King James Bible is God?

If the Word is equivalent to the AV 1611 King James Bible, then the AV 1611 King James Bible is God.

In programming terms:

type class Diety = {//way beyond our comprehension
};
//God is classified as Diety, God is the Alpha and Omega.

const Diety GOD = <The being of God and all His attributes>;
const Diety WORD_OF_GOD = GOD;
const Diety FINAL_AUTHORITY = WORD_OF_GOD;
//since WORD_OF_GOD == GOD, FINAL_AUTHORITY == GOD
//const is how to declare a constant. God never changes.
//Because God never changes, he is constant.

//For the AV 1611 King James Bible to be equivalent to the Word,
//the AV 1611 King James Bible must be God. Since God never changes,
//the AV 1611 King James Bible must be perfect the first time, and any
//duplication must be a perfect copy of the same one that was printed
//in 1611.

//If the AV 1611 King James Bible changes, even if just one letter changes,
//then God changes. This is a logical contradiction, since God never changes.
//Malachi 3:6 For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob
//are not consumed.

//Is the AV 1611 King James Bible God?

//Matthew 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass,
//one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

I will try to explain this as best I can. God is a diety, and his fullness is way beyond our comprehension. Since the Word was God, and God never changes, the Word is still God.

For the FINAL AUTHORITY to be the AV 1611 King James Bible, the AV 1611 King James Bible must be God.

I consider Scripture to be the meaning of the words that God has spoken. Here is where I have faith. I have faith that the AV 1611 King James Bible is Scripture. I have faith that the NIV is Scripture. Reading over this now, I realize that I want to have reasoning to support my faith.

Actually, this is why I accept the NIV: I have faith in God, and I seek the mind of God. When I started seeking the mind of God more aggressively around August, I decided to read John in the NIV. When I got to chapter 4, the mind of Jesus was visible in how he interacted with the woman at the well. The actions that Jesus took, not just the actions, but the very person of Jesus described in the NIV matched the being of God I know. Really, personal experience with God is how someone establishes a relationship with God. If I cannot trust my personal experiences as God driven, can I even put my trust in God?

Am I correct in that you believe that God is the AV 1611 King James Bible?

Is FINAL AUTHORITY of Diety classification? Is God of Diety classification?

Do you agree that miracle is God's way of establishing proof? If you do, I would also like to ask God for miracle to be involved with this, because I want God to be able to communicate to us His point of view on this subject.

Long post, and I expect that problems with my reasoning will be found.

Final scriptures:

Matthew 22:35-40:

35 Then one of them, which was a lawyer, asked him a question, tempting him, and saying,
36 Master, which is the great commandment in the law?
37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
38 This is the first and great commandment.
39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.

I quoted from your AV 1611 King James Bible text because I accept it as Scripture, and I know that you also accept it as Scripture.