[bibleprotector]

There is a false teaching that says that the main language spoken in Judaea in the time of Christ was "Aramaic". This is clearly false, because:
1. The NT was written in Greek.
2. Hebrew is also spoken in the NT.
3. Places where Syriack was spoken are listed as other tongues on the day of Pentecost.

As for the "Eli"/"Eloi" difference, I have also pointed out that John Gill states that Jesus on the cross cried out in Hebrew as recorded both in Matthew and Mark. It is unlikely, given the various points above, that Jesus spoke in anything but Hebrew and Greek from the cross.

As for Christ's witness to the Gentiles, we see that Greek and Hellenic culture is the main "Gentile witness" of the day. For example, Paul talked about "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek." (Rom 1:16). And again, "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him." (Rom. 10:12). Therefore, Christ speaking Greek is already indication that the Gospel should go forth to the Gentiles, and that they should be the building up of the tabernacle of David, and for the endtime conversion of the nation of Israel, etc.

On another level, we find that Greek culture and words do come into the KJB, and do affect modern-time Christianity because of the largely-Greek origins of the Church. Thus, our words like "baptise" etc. show it. Also, we find a Latin influence in our words and culture today. But to "Syriack" we find nothing, except perhaps occult arts, etc.