If a version of the Bible translated Exodus 20:7 as Thou shalt not (bleep)ing take the name of the LORD thy (bleep)ing God in vain; for the LORD will not hold him (bleep)ing guiltless that taketh his name in vain., would the profanity disqualify the translation as accurate because God does not have a vulgar attribute?

Does God have an attribute of untimeliness? If so, when? When God told Adam not to eat from the fruit of a certain tree, could the words properly be shown to be words from centuries ago which weren't yet? Did God give Moses some commandments in the language of the time of Moses and some commandments in the language of the time of Adam? When Jesus came in the flesh, do you think that he spoke with timely words that were common to his day or with language that was untimely?

Before the NASB came out with a revised edition, there were plenty of untimely thees and thous in the Old Testament. When I pointed out to the publisher that these occurrances kept the NASB from being new, they replied that they were coming out with a revised version, but would sell the old as long as there is a demand. Similar circumstances occur with the King James version.

Recognizing God's attributes in translation, when and why isn't it important? Does God always have an attribute of timeliness? When was/is it otherwise?