I've been studying out 1 Corinthians 13 about the "that which is perfect" and knowing "in part." Here's my question, if Paul the Apostle said himself that he knew "in part" (1 Cor. 13:12), then why do we believe that we as Christians now don't believe "in part"? I've always said that it was because that which was perfect is come, speaking of the Bible. But if that was the case then what was the difference between Paul and us? Didn't Paul have the same scriptures we have today? I mean doctrinal books. Yes he did because he was the one that wrote our doctrinal books. Here's my point - If he had the same scriptures as us, and he knew in part, then we also know in part today. If that is the case then obviously the "that which is perfect" has not come yet. Because scripture says:

1Co 13:10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.


What are your thoughts?