Quote:
Originally Posted by scott
From the Websters 1828 dictionary:
FORNICA'TION, n. L. fornicatio.
1. The incontinence or lewdness of unmarried persons, male or female; also, the criminal conversation of a married man with an unmarried woman.
Just my opinion, but we're kind of getting off topic. According to your definition, the term fornication, used in the KJV 32 times, would be unnecessary, because, according to your definition, they are officially married, so they couldn't commit fornication....and how could anyone commit adultery according to your definition because now they are officially married again [and divorced]??
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I find that we are better off defining words in the Bible using the Bible, rather than using a dictionary. The dictionary is wrong. Yes, even Webster was wrong sometimes. The only thing that is never wrong is the King James Bible, and it defines fornication as any sexual acting out.
Two people having sex without wanting to commit in marriage, although married technically, are still fornicators. A man who commits adultery is a fornicator. Homosexuality is fornication.
11-03-2008, 05:54 PM
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