[Just_A_Thought]

Originally Posted by Brother Tim

The question is asked,
If by KJV1611 you mean the first printing of the book, then it is clear that changes were made. The perfection was not reached until the production of the edition now known as the PCE (Pure Cambridge Edition) about 1900. From that point forward, yes, every word, spelling, and punctuation must remain unchanged for it to be 100% perfect.

Pardon my ignorance on this but I have never heard this before. I have heard the KJVO doctrine a long time but I have always been taught the KJV1611 is the perfect, inspired Word of God. You are saying this is not the case but rather the PCE is. Where does this belief stem from and how is this. Again, pardon my ignorance on this but I don't understand how Cambridge perfected the 1611.