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Therefore, Isaiah 7:14 is definitely, certainly, surely, perfectly "virgin", and since we now have the exact presentation, we cannot allow any other possibility.
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What is your point? Almah was translated in other passages in our King James Bible as: damsel, maid, virgin. Therefore the word means all three of these terms. We know from the context of all these passages that each of the women mentioned were virgins - but you are disagreeing with your Bible if you think the word almah does not also mean damsel or maid.
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And Philippians 2:21 is definitely, certainly, surely, perfectly "Jesus Christ", and since we now have the exact presentation, we cannot allow any other possibility.
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Word order in English does not disprove word order in Greek. Sentence structure in Greek is not linear the same way it is in English.
02-26-2008, 12:19 PM
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