Hi all, first post here so I'll just give some background info before I jump into the topic.



Bible used: KJV auth. Zondervan "copyright" 2000...not sure what auth. version is based on?
Protestant, new to Pauline Dispensationalism.
Brought up in non-denominational Christian home, became Christian about age 16+/-....I support KJVO after finding the disgusting (understatement!) omissions in my NIV "Bible."

The Pilcrow ¶
The following Pilcrows are at the beginning of each verse in my KJV, check yours too see if we match:
Matt28= verse 9, 11, 16 and 19.
Mark16= v9, 12, 14 & 19.
Luke24= 13, 36, 49 & 50.
John= 11, 19, 24, 26 & 30.
Biblegateway.com doesn have pilcrows for the KJV.
Blue letter Bible does have pilcrows but do not have all that I have.

Purpose:I'm debunking the alleged contradictions of the Gospels account of the resurrection. I have normally ignored the pilcrow but upon studying these Gospels intensely for the last several days I am sure that these pilcrows have crucialmeaning!!!

If I am correct about the pilcrow, then I think I may have stumbled onto an amazing puzzle that if solved will do two things:

1) It will show how the Bible proves itself infallible in a way that also (2) shows that the KJV is the ONLY Bible because no other version will be able to prove itself in this same manner because of the pilcrow and because of the all essential WORDING of the KJV.

I need to be SURE though of what the pilcrow means.
Does the Pilcrow have a meaning that pre-dates the translations?
From studying these 4 gospels, it seems to me that the Pilcrow symbolizes a division in time in which, certain things occured but the writer chose not to include it.

Upon studying these last chapters it is clear that the 'contradictions' are merely a difference in the events and the points/details within the events actually recorded by the respective authors. If you're having trouble getting around that statement heres a simple eg:

Only two gospels have the Sermon on the mount: does that mean that because the other two didn't record it, it didn't happen?
NO! Its just (in that case) a difference in the events actually recorded.

Its safe to say that these Gospels concerning the resurrection supplement each other - I think that:

Where one apostle mentions 'x' event, and another doesnt mention it, the pilcrow (obviously in the right time in the account) is used to designate a gap in time in which, certain things occured but the writer chose not to include it.

If we look on wiki http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pilcrow
If it has the same purpose then it would suggest that the available manuscripts for translation had some sort of symbol that indicating a "new section" or a "new topic" rather than the adopted Chapters and verses the translators used?

I found some other definitions of the pilcrow and I mashed them together creating one def.:
So what do ya think?
Is the pilcrow what I think it is?:
a gap in time in which, certain things occured but the writer chose not to include it, therefore, other accounts that DID include it may be super-imposed creating on unison account?

Thanks!