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Re: "Dispensational Truth and Error"
Quote:
Aloha John G, Please consider the following: The Lord Jesus Christ"s "Gospel" to Nicodemus {BEFORE His actual death, burial & resurrection}: John 3:11 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, We speak that we do know, and testify that we have seen; and ye receive not our witness. 12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things? 13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven. 14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. 18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. The Apostle Paul's "Gospel" in 1 Corinthians: 1 Corinthians 15:1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand; 2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain. 3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; 4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: Please compare the two "Gospels": In the Gospel of John (Chapter 3) there is NO specific mention of the Lord's death, burial, and especially His RESURRECTION. And there is NO mention of sin (or sins) HOW can the two "Gospels" be the "SAME" - if there is NO specific mention of the RESURRECTION of the Lord Jesus Christ in the entire Chapter Three of the Gospel of John? HOW can the two "Gospels" be the "SAME" - if there is no mention of Christ dying for "our sins"? {The Jews of Jesus' day were required to BELIEVE in Him - that is they were to BELIEVE that He was their Messiah & King} In 1Corinthians 15:1-4 Paul's DEFINES his "Gospel" - Christ died according to the scriptures; for our sins; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: {From shortly after Paul's conversion up to the present day we are required to BELIEVE Paul's "Gospel": i.e. that the Lord Jesus Christ died for "our sins", and that He was buried, and that he ROSE AGAIN from the dead - all "according to the Scriptures".} Today, we do not preach a "gospel" without mentioning the fact that "Christ died for our sins"; and we certainly don't omit the fact that He ROSE AGAIN! I said in another Post: Quote:
http://av1611.com/forums/showpost.ph...9&postcount=69 I hope this may be of some help in your search for the truth. |
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