[custer]

Originally Posted by Diligent

The problem is, people do not generally use the word race to refer to things like the "race of Adam" as in that definition. And again, the word is not used in the Bible the way we are using it; not once. In fact I do believe we are all "the race of Adam." But that obviously doesn't settle the issue for folks who want to find something about "race mixing" in the Bible. Using the Webster definition you provide, we are all one race anyway.

The concept of race, as it is used commonly, is Darwinian. The idea certainly pre-dates Darwin. That is a side issue. Call it whatever you like; it's not a Biblical concept.

If we were using the word "race" to refer to the various "ites" of the Bible, it still wouldn't change the fact that the Bible shows all sorts of "ite mixing" without condemnation from God. Again, only Isreal under the Law was ever concerned with such things --- and even then it was about specific nations, like the cursed Canaan nation. While there are spiritual applications for we in Christ, there are no commandments for us to follow regarding "mixing" of skin colors.

I agree that what we choose to call the division of peoples IS a side issue; I only brought it up because parts of this thread had degenerated into regionalism - taking God's divisions (Shem, Ham, and Japheth) and breaking them into a myriad of regional "races." Making (and keeping) distinction in Caucasian, Asian, and Negroid peoples is a world apart from trying to say French people can't marry Germans or Americans or Canadians or Scots - which is what some were trying to assert here. However, I was a little too narrow with the Bible terminology; in Genesis 10, God refers to tongues, nations, countries, families, AND generations...(This relates well to the Acts 17 verse.)

According to Genesis 43:32, it's not true that "only Israel under the Law was ever concerned with such things." The Bible says, "the Egyptians might not eat bread with the Hebrews; for that is an abomination to the Egyptians."

I disagree with most of what has been posted on this thread, but I DON'T want to argue - I would like to try to understand where y'all are coming from!
For instance, Acts 17:26 is about the physical bodies of people, which is what gets married...while Galatians 3:28 is completely spiritual (I know this has been said already...bear with me!) My question is - How can you make one part of the list in that verse ("Jew nor Greek") PHYSICAL and leave the other parts of the same list SPIRITUAL? My point is that if we are not supposed to take any note of "race" now that we're in Christ, why are we to notice any PHYSICAL difference in male and female - the verse DOES say "there is neither male nor female!!!" So I just want to know how you reconcile that...

I also want to say that I appreciate these discussions because they make me THINK and search the scriptures...THANKS!

Pam
www.custerfamilyfarm.com