[stephanos]

My Mennonite friend is trying to convert me away from the things I'm learning in regards to right dividing. I've done a fairly good job answering his emails, which have focused mostly on the Kingdom. He is typical in wanting to spiritualize this doctrine, and make Christians this Kingdom. Here is what he wrote:

The crucial issue to consider here is: When Jesus preached the Kingdom
of God, did He have in mind an earthly kingdom, or the church?

During His ministry, He refused to be made a king (Jn. 6 :15) or even
a judge (Lk 12:14). He acknowledged to Pilate that He is the King of
the Jews, but explained that His kingdom is a different kind than
Pilate and the Jews thought—not a worldly kingdom that could be
established by warfare (Jn 18:36, 37).

If Jesus had established an earthly kingdom at His first coming, He
would not have been crucified, and there would be no adequate
sacrifice to take away sin. His death was essential not only to the
Gospel of Grace but to salvation under the Law as well, because the
sacrifices only covered sin until it could be taken away (although the
Jews did not understand that). The Jews thought that it would be great
if the Messiah set up an earthly kingdom and threw off Roman
oppression. But Jesus knew that to do it would actually thwart His
greater plan of salvation.

The church is sometimes called a kingdom. Colossians 1:13 is one
example that is clearly present; we are _currently_ part of Jesus'
kingdom. Some of the references to the Kingdom have a future reference
(eternal or millennial), but I believe that most refer to the church.

The Sermon on the Mount, which dispensationalists would say belongs
with the Kingdom (i.e. Jesus' earthly reign) is probably the part of
the Bible that fits the least with the idea of God's people as an
earthly nation. Jesus' teaching on loving our enemies and so forth
would not work in an earthly kingdom—just as it would not work in an
Old Testament context. It belongs in a dispensation of grace, because
it teaches us to relate to others on the basis of grace. Although the
word "grace" is seldom used in the Gospels, the concept is all through
them. It is not something that Paul introduced.

If Jesus was offering a literal kingdom, available immediately, why
didn't He bring it when the people wanted it?

If the Kingdom does not exist yet, why did Paul speak of it as a
present reality (Col. 1:13)? If the kingdom is only for Israel, why
were the Colossian gentiles part of it?

How do I show him that the Kingdom was indeed offered to Israel, and that they rejected it. I think that if I am going to be able to rightly divide (or anyone) then this must be crystal clear. I am only about halfway through "One Book Rightly Divided" and am beginning to think I should have held off mentioning that I'm studying Right Dividing until my studies are further along, but never the less I did mention it, and I think my discussion with my friend hinges on this one key doctrine.

Much Love in Christ Jesus,
Stephen