What is the meaning of “study” in 2 Timothy 2:15, and how did you come to that conclusion?

Study...

Webster's 1828 Dictionary gives these definitions for the verb:

1. To fix the mind closely upon a subject; to muse; to dwell upon in thought.

2. To apply the mind to books.

3. To endeavor diligently.

All three would fit the usage in that passage.

Strong's Concordance gives this definition:

from 4710; to use speed, i.e. to make effort, be prompt or earnest:--do (give) diligence, be diligent (forward), endeavour, labour, study.

From the context, it is obvious that this word means to be diligent in studying out the Bible.

Do you agree that the primary meaning of “study” was "diligent" in 1525 when it appeared for the first time in an English Bible, the Tyndale New Testament of 1525?
(The 1395 Wycliffe used “Bisili” which has a primary meaning of “diligently”)

[Beltfed_0331]

Study is the right word used here in reference to 2 Tim. 2:15. It means study. Wherever it may have come from, God chose the word study to be there. In order to show yourself approved unto God one must study His Word to find His plan for your life. Without study you will not be effective in worshiping or approval with God. We must study to be able and answer any undoctrinal beliefs that might arrive. Such as the perfect preservation of Gods Word. One would study to find proofs that this is a fact. Studying to find error begins with doubt in God and His promises. Why worry about things like that, have faith in His word and take it for what it is, Gods Word. More blessed is he that believes without seeing.

Originally Posted by Beltfed_0331

Study is the right word used here in reference to 2 Tim. 2:15. It means study. Wherever it may have come from, God chose the word study to be there. In order to show yourself approved unto God one must study His Word to find His plan for your life. Without study you will not be effective in worshiping or approval with God. We must study to be able and answer any undoctrinal beliefs that might arrive. Such as the perfect preservation of Gods Word. One would study to find proofs that this is a fact. Studying to find error begins with doubt in God and His promises. Why worry about things like that, have faith in His word and take it for what it is, Gods Word. More blessed is he that believes without seeing.

Did God choose Wycliffe's word or did Wycliffe make a mistake?

(The 1395 Wycliffe used “Bisili” which has a primary meaning of “diligently”)

[Beltfed_0331]

First, God chose His word. Then used men to preserve it. As to the meaning of "study", how hard can it be? Can one say they study Gods Word if they only pick it up once and a while. God wants us to search the scripture. This is how He speaks to us today, along with the guidance of the Holy Spirit we are able to understand its meaning to our lives. To say the word study is the wrong word to use here is silly. Would you say you diligently studied for an exam if you only cramed the night before? No you would know that if you studied harder over time you would be more prepared. One must keep studying in order to be diligent. What word do you think should have been used?

Originally Posted by Beltfed_0331

First, God chose His word. Then used men to preserve it. As to the meaning of "study", how hard can it be? Can one say they study Gods Word if they only pick it up once and a while. God wants us to search the scripture. This is how He speaks to us today, along with the guidance of the Holy Spirit we are able to understand its meaning to our lives. To say the word study is the wrong word to use here is silly. Would you say you diligently studied for an exam if you only cramed the night before? No you would know that if you studied harder over time you would be more prepared. One must keep studying in order to be diligent. What word do you think should have been used?

Since the Greek word “Spoudazo” means “diligence” a better rendering would be diligent. Since it is in the imperative mode “Be diligent” would be a more accurate rendering. In addition, this translation would be more consistent with the other nearby usages of that exact word which are rendered “diligence” in the KJV (2 Ti 4:9, 2 Ti 4:21)

Tyndale introduced study here in 1525 because the primary meaning of “study” in 1525 was diligence.

Languages are fluid. In time the primary meanings of words change. Today study no longer conveys the same nuance as diligence.

Paul’s intent in this passage was that Timothy exert zealous, persistent, and maximum effort to preaching God’s word correctly, clearly, and completely.

While I recognize study will be a component to achieving that end that is not all that is required. Further, study is not what Paul intended. Had he intended “study” instead of “diligence” he could have used a Greek word like “melete” or “progummazo”.

The meaning of the Bible is the Bible. We should be diligent to convey the meaning of the author.

The Greek word means to be diligent - the context shows in what sense we are to be diligent: in studying God's Word.

P.S. Againstheresies: you are not going to get anywhere here on a KJVonly forum by trying to correct the KJV. It is counterproductive.

Originally Posted by jerry

The Greek word means to be diligent - the context shows in what sense we are to be diligent: in studying God's Word.

P.S. Againstheresies: you are not going to get anywhere here on a KJVonly forum by trying to correct the KJV. It is counterproductive.

It is helpful for me. For example, it may expose flaws in either your argument or mine. Thus far you have been helpful in exposing the weakness of your position. I anticipate a cogent rebuttal. Thus far the responses have skirted the questions and failed to provide a reasonably intelligent response. But I am sure we will have to agree to disagree on that conclusion.

Originally Posted by jerry

The Greek word means to be diligent - the context shows in what sense we are to be diligent: in studying God's Word.

P.S. Againstheresies: you are not going to get anywhere here on a KJVonly forum by trying to correct the KJV. It is counterproductive.

Since you agree that the Greek word means “diligent” and the KJV translators followed Tyndale and used “study” was it because they were trying to be more interpretive and less literal or was it because the 16th century usage of the word study had a primary meaning of diligence?