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#1
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Pre 1611 English Bibles Inspired?
Were the English translations of the Bible prior to 1611 inspired in the same way you claim the 1611 was inspired?
Specifically I am referring to: Wycliffe 1395 Tyndale 1525 Coverdale 1535 Bishop 1568 Geneva 1587 |
#2
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Wycliffe's translation was from Latin manuscripts - not the preserved Hebrew and Greek.
The Bible is inspired. God didn't "inspire" it in 1611. 2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: |
#3
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#4
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Well, God did preserve the Word in Latin too, and Wycliff is a branch off that, but no version is textually perfect except for the one which agrees with the inspired Autographs.
And it can be only one, since all versions, translations, copies, manuscripts etc. all generally differ slightly, or some not so slightly. Wycliff's translation was not corrupt, though it did contain some corruption. Only by the logic of faith can we point to the correct Bible to use. The unbelief approach is to take what is probably the best, but to state that none today are certainly fully perfect. And the Scripture indicates that there must be a perfect Bible, "Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me; that by me the preaching might be fully known, and that all the Gentiles might hear" (2 Tim. 4:17a). |
#5
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Wycliffe's Bible was part of the Reformation process - a process that both brought the Bible to the ploughman and brought forth the true text of the Bible in languages throughout the world. So who are you saying should have 'rejected' Wycliffe's work ? What English Bible was available that they would have 'rejected' it for in the 1400s ? Who here has said that no Bible is superior to a Bible version with impurities, even with our hindsight ? Please note that even textually the Wycliffe Latin-to-English translation is far superior to what is put out today in the version marketplace of corruption. His Bible includes the Pericope Adultera and the ending of Mark as fully and truly God's word, with no false accusation that these sections are the corruption of man, and he includes major verses like Acts 8:37 and the Johannine Comma as scripture. By difficult labors Wycliffe gave us the best Bible he was able to give, and paved the way for Tyndale and the Reformers to continue the work more excellently. Only when those further efforts came to fruition in the 1500s and 1600s were men in a position to 'reject' (ie. accept what had become available and was superior) the resulting Bible version of Wycliffe for the far superior Tyndale Bible, and those Reformation Bibles which continued to refine and purify the English Bible. Which is what actually occurred. Did Desiderius Erasmus and William Tyndale and Stephanus (Robert Estienne) and Theodore Beza and John Calvin and Lancelot Andrewes accuse John Wycliffe in his labors, in his bringing forth the Bible into English ? Or did they simply appreciate his efforts as a forerunner of their own labors, a necessary and proper and excellent prelude. Quote:
Every one of those four versions you mention are vastly superior to the versions sold in the marketplaces of corruption today. Each one had a role as part of God's providential design to make available to the ploughman his pure and perfect word. Each one then decreased, as the pure and perfect word of God, the King James Bible, increased to its place of majesty and clarity and acceptance as the Holy Bible, the word of God. Shalom, Steven Last edited by Steven Avery; 04-29-2008 at 01:08 AM. |
#6
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I am not dismissing Wycliffe or any of the other pre-1611 translations. Jerry dismissed Wycliffe, not me. My question was, “were the English translations of the Bible prior to 1611 inspired in the same way you claim the 1611 was inspire?” It may be helpful to answer that question. |
#7
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Shalom, Steven |
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