Explain how they can all be God's word.

Referring to my comment that the TR, BHS, KJV, NIV, NASB and ESV are God's Word. They are all copies (of copies....) of God's Word originally given.

You repetadely ask us to show you with chapter and verse where KJBO is present....well, can you show us where KJBOnlyism is outright condemned in the Bible?

I can and will if you answer my question first. I asked first, so you prove scripturally that the KJV is the only Bible to be used since 1611.

We all must be ever so careful not to enter into strife and debate with those that don't believe God preserved His Word in the English language for these last days.

Right on. I agree wholeheartedly.

[bibleprotector]

prove scripturally that the KJV is the only Bible to be used since 1611.

Actually, the King James Bible is coming to be the only valid version to be used now.

Actually, the King James Bible is coming to be the only valid version to be used now.

Why? Biblically. Are we limited to only one English version? Some KJVOnlys say that we are allowed only one version at a time. I can point you to their comments if you desire.

I am asking this for clarification. I have discussed this with other KJVOnlys and they will not put it this way. To them, since 1611, it has been the only God-ordained option. There was no "coming to be..."

[bibleprotector]

As we know, there are several broad categories of people with differing views who are called "King James Bible Only".

And I was not talking about English only when I said "coming to be", I meant throughout the whole world, in every nation. The King James Bible has already been the only Bible in English for years and years and years.

Clearly, the King James Bible progressively superseded the Geneva Version over time.

In like manner, the King James Bible is among all believers (as opposed to the large apostate portions of Pentecostal, evangelical and fundamental Protestantism) taking its rightful place as the only Bible, or rather, God's chosen final Bible.

(I have discussed the entire area in lots of detail in the latest draft of my new book, which presents a Scriptural basis in Part Four for why there should be one Bible for all.)

Originally Posted by freesundayschoollessons

Why? Biblically. Are we limited to only one English version? "

See my post A Man With One Watch Knows What Time It Is; A Man With Two Is Never Quite Sure

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- “One accurate measurement is worth more than a thousand expert opinions”

- “...this is the Word of God; come, search, ye critics, and find a flaw; examine it, from its Genesis to its Revelation, and find an error... This is the book untainted by any error; but is pure, unalloyed, perfect truth. Why? Because God wrote it. Ah! charge God with error if you please; tell him that his book is not what it ought to be. I have heard men, with prudish and mock-modesty, who would like to alter the Bible; and (I almost blush to say it) I have heard ministers alter God's Bible, because they were afraid of it... Pity they were not born when God lived far—far back that they might have taught God how to write.” Charles Haddon Spurgeon (Spurgeon's Sermons Volume 1: Sermon II p. 31)

- “If, therefore, any do complain that I have sometimes hit my opponents rather hard, I take leave to point out that 'to everything there is a season, and a time to every purpose under the sun' : 'a time to embrace, and a time to be far from embracing' : a time for speaking smoothly, and a time for speaking sharply. And that when the words of Inspiration are seriously imperilled, as now they are, it is scarcely possible for one who is determined effectually to preserve the Deposit in its integrity, to hit either too straight or too hard.” Dean John William Burgon (The Revision Revised. pp. vii-viii)

[Debau]

Originally Posted by freesundayschoollessons

Referring to my comment that the TR, BHS, KJV, NIV, NASB and ESV are God's Word. They are all copies (of copies....) of God's Word originally given.

You forgot the NWT, the Message, GNFMM, ad nauseum, etc..

Explain how they can all be God's word.

Two things that are different are not the same.

[Paladin54]

In Psalms, 12:6-7, God promises us that not only will His Word be preserved, but that it will also be pure, like silver tried in a furance of earth, purified seven times. That is perfection in metallurgy.

Also, inspiration of scripture is NOT corrupted by translation. I worship a God who made the laws of physics, the mountains, and the science of the cosmos, and is by no means limited to the pathetic tongues of men. See http://av1611.com/kjbp/faq/inspired-translation.html

Also, every time that the word "translation" is used, it is transforming something to be much better, like Enoch's translation and the translation of a lost sinner brought to Christ. See http://av1611.com/kjbp/faq/translation-better.html

In Psalms, 12:6-7, God promises us that not only will His Word be preserved, but that it will also be pure, like silver tried in a furance of earth, purified seven times. That is perfection in metallurgy.

Actually, that passage is not talking about the preservation of Scripture. It is talking about the preservation of the "poor."

Even if this was about preservation, there is nothing in this passage that teaches that the Word of God will be preserved completely and perfectly in the KJV alone.

[Paladin54]

The King James Bible says:
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever."
Psalms 12:6-7

What version are you using?

The KJV.
You simply stripped these verses out of their context.
"Them" in verse 7 is the antecedent of "poor" in verse 5
The entire passage is speaking about God preserving the poor from the wicked. He is not talking about preserving His word.

I am not against the preservation of Scripture. I believe God has preserved His word. This passage is not a proof text for it.