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Old 06-24-2009, 10:34 AM
Jeremy Jeremy is offline
 
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After reading New Age Versions by Gail Riplinger and her mention of copyrighted material,i looked into what she said. In order to have a copyright, there has to be a significant enough change for a new copyright. So,that makes sense if you have an NIV from 73,78 etc and why none of those versions agree. Would you want another version? Not me. The KJ doesn't have a copyright,for good reason. Thank God for His Preservation of His Word. It is perfect and without error.

Also i was interested if the copyright in the book was the same as the publishing date.
Here is the response i recieved from the State Law Library of Iowa-Law Library.

1.The Publishing date is the same as the copyright date.

2. A copyright application allows for an author to request an additional copyright for a derivative work if the U.S. Copyright Office deems material added to the pre-existing work to be significant enough for a new copyright.

This backs up those statements made by GA Riplinger.
It is elementary to most of you,but thought it was interesting nonetheless.
  #2  
Old 06-24-2009, 11:02 AM
Bro. Parrish
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jeremy View Post
The KJ doesn't have a copyright,for good reason. Thank God for His Preservation of His Word. It is perfect and without error.
Very true brother, and it's a worthwhile study regarding copyright... I decided long ago it would make no sense to have man's copyright on God's work!
  #3  
Old 06-25-2009, 09:33 PM
HowlerMonkey
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Copywrite laws are different in different contries. In the US all rights are expired and the AV is public domain. However, in the United Kingdom the Crown owns the rights to the AV and in order to print it you need permission. Look at the title page of a Bible printed in the UK it reads "Rights in the Authorized Version are vested in the Crown."
  #4  
Old 06-26-2009, 06:55 AM
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Brother Tim Brother Tim is offline
 
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The simple difference in the use of copyrights is:

The British crown copyright is solely to protect the integrity of the text, while the mv copyrights are to protect the bottom line of the publisher's profits. Plain and simple!
  #5  
Old 06-26-2009, 07:21 AM
Bro. Parrish
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Bro. Tim is correct, by the way as I understand it the universities of Oxford and Cambridge also possess the right to print the Bible over there. But it doesn't matter. The superior text of the KJV has long left any restrictions of kings (or queens) and swept around the world to reach millions upon millions.

"The Lord gave the word:
great was the company of those that PUBLISHED it."
- Psalm 68:11

Last edited by Bro. Parrish; 06-26-2009 at 07:29 AM.
  #6  
Old 06-27-2009, 10:56 PM
HowlerMonkey
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The fact that the AV is not under copyright in the US is meaningless as an argument either in favor of or against it as a translation. It just doesn't prove anything other than the fact that the AV was published before 1923 and like ALL other books published before 1923 it is public domain in the US.

If a person wishes to argue in favor of the AV, there are a lot of very potent arguments that can be made. This just isn't one of them.

In fact, the Revised Version of 1885 and the American Standard Version of 1901 are also not under copyright.
 


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