[BornAgainBibleBeliever514]

I've noticed while reading my Bible, that sometimes words like 'he' and 'him' when used in reference to God or Jesus are capitalized, and other times they are not.
Now, obviously words like 'God', 'Jesus', 'Lord' and 'Holy Spirit' are proper pronouns, and ought to be capitalized according to good English grammar.
But sometimes Jesus Christ our Lord will be referred to with a 'him' or 'he' in the scriptures. I heard it said that the Catholic Bible-changers are prone to playing around with capitalizing things that ought not to be, and the modern versions take this pretty far too, like capitalizing words like 'name', 'the one' and others.

My question is, what is the correct rule for deciding whether to cap or not to cap when there is not a clear scriptural or grammatical precedent?

Also, I always capitalize the word 'Bible', except when referring to a modern perversion, but what say ye? ...

[geologist]

Originally Posted by BornAgainBibleBeliever514

My question is, what is the correct rule for deciding whether to cap or not to cap when there is not a clear scriptural or grammatical precedent?

Suffer me to make it even more confusing:

Genesis 1:5-10 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day. And God said, Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters. And God made the firmament, and divided the waters which were under the firmament from the waters which were above the firmament: and it was so. And God called the firmament Heaven. And the evening and the morning were the second day. And God said, Let the waters under the heaven be gathered together unto one place, and let the dry land appear: and it was so. And God called the dry land Earth; and the gathering together of the waters called he Seas: and God saw that it was good.

In our King James Bible note that 5 words in this portion of the creation narrative are in caps (aside from the word "God" and the first letter of proper sentences). I believe the reason this was done was to call the readers attention to terms in the Bible that will appear in different contexts.

For example, the word "Day" can be used to express:
a. A day of the week.
b. A time in prophecy, not necessarily 24 hours long.
c. Physical light.
d. Spiritual light.

The word Night can be:
a. The dark part of a day.
b. A time of darkness in prophecy, not necessarily 24 hours long.
c. Physical darkness.
d. Spiritual darkness.

The word Heaven can be:
a. The air above the Earth
b. The vastness of space
c. The abode of God's throne
(There are three heavens)

The word Earth:
a. The planet, as a whole
b. The land

The word Seas:
a. There are seas on the surface of the earth.
b. There is a "sea" between the second and third heaven.
c. There are roaring seas that represent peoples in prophecy.

I'm sure I missed a few, but I think you get the idea. I hope this is helpful.

[BornAgainBibleBeliever514]

Gee Geologist, you sure have clarified it ! lol!

Those are interesting points, kind of like the first mention law, but for words, not things or concepts.

In the other thread similar to this one (started almost the same time), peopleoftheway pointed out that the Holy Spirit within us will show us the meaning of the text when actually reading the Bible, and I have zero qualms about how a word appears in the AV.

Here is an interesting article I read a while back and it made me curious about the minor changes between editions:
http://www.biblebelievers.com/believ...rfeit-kjv.html
Kind of makes me wonder just how bad it really is. If editing of the 1611 (not revising) is ok, then are these types of discrepancies be inconsequential, or not? I don't own a PCE -yet- but I got myself a TBS straight text from avpublications.com thinking it would be as close to the purest I could find at the time.

My inquiry was more about when we ourselves use these various words in our own writings, is it safe and sound to capitalize basically everything when in doubt, or is there a rule, considering those cases where the scriptural precedent can go eitheer way.
Specifically, 'he', 'him' and 'his' when in referrence to God, Jesus or the Holy Spirit. Also should I continue capitalizing the word Bible when in referrence to the AV1611?

I know this may be trivial, but I've always wondered inthe back of my mind if this practise is correct.

[Brother Tim]

The rules for capitalizing pronouns when referring to God have changed since the printing of the KJB. If you are writing/typing the words "he/his/him" and referring to God, then based on modern accepted rules of English, the pronouns should be capitalized. The "B" in Bible follows the same rule. It shows respect. Now some do not capitalize the "b" when referring to other books besides the KJB. I consider that a personal preference, because the rule has to do with respect. Note that the word "bible" itself is borrowed for other non-religious uses, such as "The Plumber's Bible", etc.

I never capitalize the "s" in satan when I use the name, just to diss him.

[Diligent]

I do not capitalize "he" in reference to God because it is poor English to do so. "He" (upper-case he) in the middle of a sentence means helium.

It is a personal pronoun, not a proper noun, and should not be capitalized. God's name is Jehova, not "he." God's titles are God, Lord, Saviour, etc, not "he."

That said, it's not something I'd build a doctrine on. Just a pet peeve of mine -- almost all modern bibles editorialize with capitalized "he" and I have no desire to follow their lead.

[Brother Tim]

I was capitalizing "He/His?Him" when referring to God out of respect for Him long before the MVs started doing it. They have followed my lead.

I also capitalize LORD, as in the OT form even though the NT does not.