The infallability of the Bible is not in question with these two persons. If there is a typing error, it can still be the word of God. For example, one of the first re-printings of the KJV had Exodus 20:14 wrong, and said "Thou shalt commit adultery". This was quickly caught and it was corrected. Everybody quicklyu saw this mere printing error. Everybody knew better, and that is why the message was not changed:EVERYBODY knew that the Bible really says" Thou shalt not commit adultery".
HOWEVER, when you change something like Acts 8:9 "bewitxched the people" and make it "astonished the people", you change the meaning of the verse. Here, the meaning, or in some cases with the NKJV Christian doctrine or the Deity of Christ, that corrupts the word, making it no longer the infallable Word of God.
To answer your questions specifically, both word in each example. In Jeremiah 34;16, the context lets you know that the King of Judah, Zedekiah, had made a covenant with the people of Judah. This covenant said that the people would release their man and maidservants, or slaves, contrary to the covenant God had made witht the Israelites in Exodus. Suddenly, the people recalled their bondservants and made them work again.
So, the King told the people to release the bondservants, meaning that he released the bondservants with the authority of his royalty. "whom he released"
The people released the bondservants with the authority as their masters. "whom ye released"
Both parties, King Zedekiah and the Israelites released their bondservants.
"Ye" (the Israelites) and "he" (the King Zedekiah) both released the bondservants.
In 2 Chronicles 33:19, "sin" and "sins" mean the same thing. It doesn't matter which word is there, BOTH CAMBRIDGE AND OXFORD EDITIONS SAY THE SAME THING!
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