Whether Anglicans were largely immersionists (or not) is not germaine. Even Baptists practiced two forms of baptism. This is really not the crux of my argument.

Why did I raise this argument in the first place? While another interesting thread seeks to understand the differences between the varieties of the KJVOnly crowd this thread highlights a very important distinction--"What did God actually preserve in the KJV?"

Did He preserve...
His very WORDS?
His very DEFINITION of every word?
His very MEANING of every word in its context?
His very SENSE of every word in its context?

How far, as a strict KJVOnly advocate, would you go knowing that the terms "Baptism" and "Church" are used?