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Old 04-30-2008, 09:15 PM
sophronismos
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diligent View Post
And to your point: when I was healed of being NIV+ there was surprisingly little "coping" with the language of the KJV. Once one lets go of one's prejudice, it's not "coping" with the language that's a problem!
Perhaps he doesn't mean personal coping so much as coping with the blank stares of others when he reads a passage to them.

Perhaps coping isn't the best word to use, but think about this passage. 1st Thessalonians 4:15 "For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep." I don't have to cope with the passage, since I understand it and I beleive it, and I love it. But I do have to cope with heretics misusing the archaic language, specifically the word prevent, to make this passage mean something other than it means. This passage, properly understood, kills the secret-silent-rapture theory by showing that we will not by any means PRECEDE (prevent here means precede) the dead saints, that is, we will not be raptured UNTIL the dead saints are RAISED FROM THE DEAD. So, the rapture theory common among oh so many today is blasted to smitherines. But I have to "cope" with all the heretics running around making this mean "we will not stop the dead saints from raising" when it really means "we will not precede the dead saints" (that is, "we will not be raptured until they are raised and raptured with us"). There probably would be no ridiculous pre-resurrection rapture theory today if someone would have updated this archaic language a century ago! But I'll bet at least 80% of you guys on here beleive that the rapture will take place before the resurrection and some of you are going to jump me and say "nu uh! the word prevent here does mean 'stop' and all it means is 'we cannot stop the saints from being raised.' Prevent doesn't mean precede and it doesn't mean we will not be raptured before the resurrection." Such is a lot of times the impetus behind many people being KJVOs--they simply want to keep the archaic language to prop up some certain heresy. Not everyone is such, as I am not, but many MANY are. Now, Job says in Job 3:12 "Why did the knees prevent me? or why the breasts that I should suck?" He doesn't mean "why did the knees stop me?" because clearly he is lamenting that they DIDN'T stop him. He is wishing he had died in infancy, but he didn't, because the knees preceded him!

Last edited by sophronismos; 04-30-2008 at 09:24 PM.