So it's clear that Thomas did not have faith before He saw Christ, but after he saw Christ, he had faith. So he had faith after sight.
Now what if after he saw Christ, he would still refuse to believe? Is Thomas still expected to have faith after he had seen Christ? Or, is he no longer required to have faith since he had already seen Christ?
If he had not faith before sight, did he have faith after sight then?
How about the Jews who had seen Christ's miracles, and yet they did not have faith? Are they expected to have faith after they had seen Christ's miracles, or are they expected to have faith "only" before they had seen them?
I have no problem accepting that faith has to do with things unseen, but I don't think it is limited to that. For example, in the Dispensation of Innocence, faith in God's Word is required of Adam even if he has seen the tree of the knowledge of good and evil or even if he has not seen death. In the Dispensation of the Kingdom, people who have seen the King still has to have faith in God's Word for that age. My belief is that faith [and blood] is required in every dispensation. Faith is believing the Word of God, whether one has seen what He said or not.
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