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WHY else was it necessary for him to receive "his Gospel" by direct "revelation" from the Lord Jesus Christ and NOT from other men (Peter, James, John, etc.), IF his "Gospel" was the "SAME"?
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He would not have been qualified to be an apostle otherwise. All the others received the message directly from the LORD. He received the same also, though at the later point in time.
If the gospel is the same, then all men can be judged equally. That solves the problem with no need for second guessing.