Quote:
Originally Posted by George
#3. The Scriptures state: “But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.” [Galatians 4:4-5] The Lord Jesus Christ came in fulfillment of Jewish prophecies; to fulfill Jewish promises; made exclusively to the Jewish people. The Bible says He came: “To redeem them that were under the law”, i.e. Jews (Hebrews/Israelites) – NOT Gentiles. And He Himself reaffirmed this when He said: “But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.” [Matthew 15:24]
Please notice: According to the testimony of Scripture: the Lord Jesus Christ came exclusively to the “lost sheep of the house of Israel” (NOT the Gentiles) in order to “redeem them that were under the law” (ONLY the Jews were “under the law”). That is WHY it is so crucial to “rightly divide” the Lord’s words in the Gospels, because most of his words (while He was ministering on earth) were directed to the nation of Israel (Jews/Hebrew/Israelites) and NOT to the church (New Testament blood bought Saints).
If Christians do not “rightly divide” God’s word on this crucial issue, they cannot “make sense” of much of the Gospels and will eventually end up attempting to “HARMONIZE” the word of truth, instead of “rightly DIVIDING the word of truth”.
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Greetings, Brother George. As always thank you for your thorough exposition of the word of God. God continues using you in my life as a "mentor" and "teacher". The "Master Teacher" is using you to minister to His body!
I need some clarification on post #188 under point #3 quoted in part above. Here is my question. I know the "law" was specifically written to the Hebrew/Israelite as you pointed out, but are all people "
kept under the law" in a general sense?
Galatians 3:22-25 But the scripture hath concluded all [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentiles?] under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentiles?] that believe. But before faith came, we [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentiles?] were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentiles?] schoolmaster to bring us [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentiles?] unto Christ, that we [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentile?] might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we [does this include both Hebrews/Israelites and Gentiles?] are no longer under a schoolmaster.
If "
we" and "
them" and "
our" and "
us" and "
all" includes the Gentiles also, then wouldn't
Galatians 4:4-5 which says, "But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem
them that were
under the law, that
we might receive the adoption of sons" also be a promise to include the Gentiles, not just the Hebrew/Israelite?