[tonybones2112]

Brandon, as a new member I am under temporary moderation, this may take a day or so to reach you.

The question you ask is one I never considered. I am not demeaning your question, I personally, for my own satisfaction, never considered it important. Your question is valid however. You drop in on many KJV partisans as not exactly a KJV Only person and war breaks out. You asked a question in a non combative way, I think you are honestly seeking answers. I'm a veteran of many KJV Only forums and the discussion can get combative, both pro and con.

I cannot answer that question, only that the purposes of God are not always revealed to us. It could easily have been a Queen Elizabeth Version if it were to His purposes. The Bible states that God respects human government, since he set it up(Romans 13). James was just a time in history when the time was right. He was a king who made an order that honored God. The translators were honest, and God has apparently chosen it as the vessel of His Whole Counsel. God knew English would be probably the predominant language and many foreign language versions come from it and the underlying texts.

I have in my hands the pure words of God, without provable error. It works effectually in those who believe it. The NIV may CONTAIN His words, it is not the version He speaks through.

There are several people who have taken the seven purifications of Psalms 12:6-7 as 7 translations and/or periods of time that the word of God is purified in English, and they seem to make a pretty good case, Dr. Peter Ruckman's exposition particularly.

I will post a message on King James and have much to say myself on the topic of the KJV if you are interested. I'm currently working on a book called THE ORIGINAL MANUSCRIPT FRAUD. I will maintain comments on this thread as long as you desire to read it and will give you the key to one of the most misunderstood doctrines in Christianity: What is "inspiration"?

Grace and peace

Tony Bones