Quote:
Originally Posted by BrianT
Whether the LXX (or something akin to it, or something else) is the source of Luke's words is secondary. The bigger point is that the words Luke says were "written", the words Jesus called "scripture" (written, by definition), are different than what the Hebrew and KJV have in Isa 61.
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Numerous people claim that God's promise of preservation is in regards to the original langauges specifically. If Isaiah 61 was being preserved in Hebrew, how is it that Jesus goes against this (according to the hypothesis that Jesus used a different non-Hebrew version)? If Jesus acted against the Hebrew by going to a Greek translation, why should Christians today believe that the true Old Testament is preserved in the Hebrew, and that the true sense is there? If Jesus used a Greek translation as authority, can we not use an English one today as authoritative?