This is my opinion, could be wrong. But when you read the Old Testament, its Hebrew to English. When you read an OT quote in the New Testament, its Hebrew to Greek to English. Which could account for word ordering and word use.
When reading in a Temple, Christ would have used a Hebrew text or Aramaic depending on which book was being read. But later, such as in the Epistles, Paul might have quoted from the Greek translation for gentiles as they most likely wouldn't have spoken Hebrew.
If Jesus Christ did paraphrase some, well it is His right to do so.
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