Where are you getting the term "69th week" from?
That is found nowhere in Daniel.
It is 7 weeks, 62 weeks, and one week, for a total of seventy weeks.

There is no "69th week" or "70th week."
The three time periods are different periods of a total 70 weeks.

When did I say the church was in Matt. 24?
Matt. 24 is exclusively to the Jews.
That, however, doesn't mean that NO ONE ELSE will be around during some of the things being described in it.

Was the church around when the temple was destroyed in 70 AD?

And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple.
And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.
Matt 24:1,2

Was the church around when the Jews went back into the land in 1948?

Just because the church is not being addressed in Matt. 24 doesn't mean it can't be present for some of the events in it.

Matt 24:32-33
32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
KJV

Haven't read so many commentaries about this. It may be talking about 1948. Plain reading of verse 33, however, tells us that when they see "ALL" of those things, they would know that "IT" is near.

Who is the "YE"? (Certainly, Jesus is not talking to people in the Church Age, not about the Church Age.)

What is the "ALL"? (All that was said beginning with verse 4, which is answer of the question in verse three. One has to admit that the "all" here refers to all of the events described to happen in the Tribulation period and "all" the signs just before the Second Coming.)

What is the "IT"? ("It" can't be the Rapture of the Church but the Second Coming of Christ on earth.)

Starting the "all these things" in 1948 can't be "near". But seven years (antichrist claiming to be Christ and confirms the covenant with Israel), three and one-half years (great tribulation), and falling stars (signs and wonders) just before "it" would signal that the Second Coming is "at the doors".

And again-
when did I say the "coming" in Matt 24 is the rapture of the church?

Please try to concentrate on what I actually say.

let me back up to a post on this thread I posted 2 or 3 pages back concerning the 69 weeks

the seventy weeks that have been declared against "thy people", the Jews

Daniel 9:24
Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.

The above verse speaks of the time God has given to finish the transgression, to end sin, to bring in everlasting righteousness, God says that "70 weeks" will fulfill all this.
The Hebrew word (heptad) (apologies for using the hebrew, but its only to help with the translation, not change it)translated as week in Daniel 9:24-27 literally means "7" and 70 weeks literally means 70 sevens ,70 times 7

The time period that God speaks of is really 70 sevens of years, or 490 years.
Daniel 9:25
Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.
Daniel 9:26
And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

yes, but 1948 is OUTSIDE of the tribulation period just as the destruction of the temple and the beginning of sorrows is OUTSIDE of the tribulation period.

There is absolutely no proof that the "beginning of sorrows" is the first half of the tribulation.
Quite the opposite, actually.

Is A.D. 70 and 1948 the fulfilment of Matthew 24?
Is the Roman General the Antichrist? Did he claim to be Christ and confirmed the covenant?

Can't Matthew 24:2 be fulfilled in the Tribulation period? Matthew 24:3 tells us WHEN Matthew 24:2 will be fulfilled.

Matt 24:3
3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
KJV

How can it be "outside" when it's "THE BEGINNING"? It's the "beginning" towards the "end" (Matthew 24:3,13). Right?

No.

The temple they were looking at and talking about was HEROD'S temple which was destroyed in 70 AD by Titus. Not one stone was left upon another.


Now you're not rightly dividing.
The first part is about Herod's temple.
The rest skips ahead to the Second Coming and the end times, beginning with the Jews going back into the land - NOT with the tribulation period.

No, it's the beginning OF the end.
It's the sign to the Jews that the end is drawing near.