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-   -   Did Jesus go to hell for us ? (https://av1611.com/forums/showthread.php?t=625)

Josh 11-04-2008 01:48 PM

Amen!! "It is finished" means just that. Done. Complete. Paid in full. Christ's resurection was His victory over death. The price for our sins was paid in full at Calvary. :)

MC1171611 11-04-2008 04:58 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Josh (Post 11092)
Amen!! "It is finished" means just that. Done. Complete. Paid in full. Christ's resurection was His victory over death. The price for our sins was paid in full at Calvary. :)

But you have to remember that Jesus hadn't "ascended unto my father" yet at the tomb when Mary came; she wasn't allowed to touch Him because the atonement hadn't yet been completed. Just make sure you aren't applying a Biblical truth incorrectly to fit your own beliefs.

Here Am I 11-04-2008 08:51 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Brother Tim (Post 11087)
The suffering of Christ ended on the cross. "It is finished."

Right. So, He wouldn't have suffered any in Hell.

Kiwi Christian 11-04-2008 11:11 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Brother Tim (Post 11087)
The suffering of Christ ended on the cross. "It is finished."

"It is finished" is a reference to "all things that were accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled" in the previous verse John 19:28, it also signifies the end of His human life, for Jesus gave up the ghost in verse 29 immediately after he made the statement. He didn't say "it is finished" because his pain & suffering would be over.

The sacrifice of Christ's body was "finished" on the cross (Hebrews 10:8-12), and I believe that afterwards His soul was made an offering (scripture previously posted) for sin in the fires of hell, as our passover Lamb, and as Sin itself (He became sin for us) which had to be purged by fire. That 'fits' with the scriptures posted previously concerning Christ in the underworld, which many have difficulty with and can't explain.

chette777 11-05-2008 05:08 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Kiwi Christian (Post 11045)
So if you don't believe Christ went to the fires of hell, where was Peter referring to when he said in Acts 2:31 "He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption."

Is hell in this verse not that place of torment in the heart of the earth?

The hell Peter is refering too is the dual holding place of the dead known to the jews as torment and pradise (Abraham's bosom). if he was left there that would mean non of us could have teh promise of resurrection. he was raised for our justification. if he did not rise we would not be justified either.

He did not sufer torments because Gods justice would not allow a sinless man to be tormented. Jesus physical life was the sacrifice not his spirit or soul. and it was only as far as the work of the cross only that Jesus had to be the substitute. His purpose to go to the prison or holdingplace was to preach to them in torments and to verify the faith of the righteous. when he rose the righteous souls went with him.

kittn1 11-05-2008 08:05 AM

I'm confused on "paradise." The word only appears three times in the Bible; all three in the NT and in the original Greek, all three occurrences have the same meaning.

Luke 23:43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.

2 Corinthians 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.

Revelation 2:7 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.

Is it the same paradise, or three different ones; a generic term for three different locations?

Thinking about it as I wrote this, I'm thinking it's a generic term.

MC1171611 11-05-2008 08:33 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by chette777 (Post 11132)
The hell Peter is refering too is the dual holding place of the dead known to the jews as torment and pradise (Abraham's bosom). if he was left there that would mean non of us could have teh promise of resurrection. he was raised for our justification. if he did not rise we would not be justified either.

He did not sufer torments because Gods justice would not allow a sinless man to be tormented. Jesus physical life was the sacrifice not his spirit or soul. and it was only as far as the work of the cross only that Jesus had to be the substitute. His purpose to go to the prison or holdingplace was to preach to them in torments and to verify the faith of the righteous. when he rose the righteous souls went with him.

Don't forget that Jesus, in God's eyes, was not sinless when He was upon the cross; God put the sins of the entire world upon Him and punished Him for them. It makes sense, if you think about it, that the person who bore our sin debt would also pay the eternal punishments of Hell, since that is the penalty for the sins He paid for.

RND 11-05-2008 03:11 PM

Um, that's an obvious parable.


Lazarus and the Rich Man

[A Scriptural Journey Through the Intriguing Parable of Lazarus and the Rich Man]

L. Ray Smith

Kiwi Christian 11-05-2008 04:16 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by chette777 (Post 11132)
The hell Peter is refering too is the dual holding place of the dead known to the jews as torment and pradise (Abraham's bosom).

In Luke 16:22-23 where we learn of Abraham's bosom, the scripture makes a distinction between the two holding places, one being the place of rest, Ab's bosom, and the other being the place of torment, HELL. I don't believe Ab's bosom is a part of hell, but that the two are separate places with a great gulf between them.

You run the references on hell in the Bible and they ALL refer to that place of torment, and Jesus Christ preached about it the most, so when Peter is speaking of "not leaving Christ's soul in hell" it's clear where he was meaning, to me anyway! :cool:

stephanos 11-05-2008 04:55 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by MC1171611 (Post 11140)
Don't forget that Jesus, in God's eyes, was not sinless when He was upon the cross; God put the sins of the entire world upon Him and punished Him for them. It makes sense, if you think about it, that the person who bore our sin debt would also pay the eternal punishments of Hell, since that is the penalty for the sins He paid for.


I thought that I already clarified that the wages of sin is death?

Peace and Love,
Stephen


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